So we use fractions of 100 instead of fractions of 10 because base 60 was too useful? How does that make any sense? The question wasn’t why we use base 100 instead of base 60.
No, it’s a full-on non-sequitur. As I said, the question wasn’t why we use fractions of 100 instead of fractions of 60, but why we use fractions of 100 instead of fractions of 10. What you’re saying doesn’t relate at all to my question.
But I’m done here, you’re either arguing in incredibly bad faith, or you’re not capable of understanding my questions. Either isn’t something I’ll spend more time on.
Because base 60 was too useful for a bunch of French fuckwits couple hundred years ago
So we use fractions of 100 instead of fractions of 10 because base 60 was too useful? How does that make any sense? The question wasn’t why we use base 100 instead of base 60.
Not really knowledgeable bout history either, are you?
Not really able to lead a conversation without non-sequiturs, are you?
It’s not a non sequitur. You’d know that if you ever read a book.
No, it’s a full-on non-sequitur. As I said, the question wasn’t why we use fractions of 100 instead of fractions of 60, but why we use fractions of 100 instead of fractions of 10. What you’re saying doesn’t relate at all to my question.
But I’m done here, you’re either arguing in incredibly bad faith, or you’re not capable of understanding my questions. Either isn’t something I’ll spend more time on.
Just cause you don’t understand doesn’t make it a non-sequitur